Q1) Which table is NOT maintained by a link-state routing protocol?
A) routing
B) topology
C) update
D) neighbor
Q2) The memory needed to maintain tables is one disadvantage of link-state protocols.
A) true
B) false
Q3) Match each table to its function.
A) routing
B) topology
C) neighbor
topology_____ 1. stores LSAs
neighbor_____ 2. stores adjacencies
routing_____ 3. stores best paths
Q4) Which term refers to the router that connects area 0 to a non backbone area?
A) area boundary router
B) area border router
C) autonomous system boundary router
D) backbone router
Q5) What is the recommended guideline for the maximum number of routers per OSPF area?
A) 50
B) 10
C) 200
D) 500
Q6) Which OSPF packet helps form the neighbor adjacency?
A) exchange packet
B) hello packet
C) neighbor discovery packet
D) adjacency packet
Q7) Which criterion does SPF use to determine the best path?
A) lowest delay
B) highest bandwidth
C) lowest total cost of the route
D) total bandwidth of the route
Q8) Which table is populated as a result of the SPF calculations?
A) topology
B) routing
C) adjacency
D) neighbor
Q9) Cisco recommends no more than _____ area or areas per ABR in addition to area 0.
A) one
B) two
C) four
D) eight
Q10) An area border router maintains _____.
A) a separate database for each area with which it is connected
B) a single database for all areas
C) two databases: one for the backbone and one for all others
D) a separate routing table for each area
Q11) In a multiarea network, any area can be the backbone area, although this is most often area 0.
A) true
B) false
Q12) When an LSA is received by an OSPF router, it is installed in the _____.
A) neighbor table
B) topology table
C) routing table
Q13) An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router checks its sequence number, and this
number matches the sequence number of the LSA that the receiving router already has.
What does the receiving router do with the LSA?
A) ignores the LSA
B) adds it to the database
C) sends newer LSU update to source router
D) floods the LSA to the other routers
Q14) An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that
this number is higher than the sequence number it already has. Which two tasks does
the router perform with the LSA?
A) ignores the LSA
B) adds it to the database
C) sends newer LSU update to source router
D) floods the LSA to the other routers
Q15) An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that
this number is lower than the sequence number it already has. What does the router do
with the LSA?
A) ignores the LSA
B) adds it to the database
C) sends newer LSU update to source router
D) floods the LSA to the other routers
Q16) Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, how long does an LSA wait before requiring an update?
A) 30 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 30 minutes
D) 1 hour
Q17) Distance vector protocols use the concept of split horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such as OSPF, do not.
A) true
B) false
Q18) The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used to populate the _____.
A) topology table
B) routing table
C) neighbor table
D) adjacency table
Q19) What is the IP protocol number for OSPF packets?
A) 89
B) 86
C) 20
D) 76
Q20) Which packet is NOT an OSPF packet type?
A) LSU
B) LSR
C) DBD
D) LSAck
E) hello
F) query
Q21) Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello protocol use?
A) 224.0.0.5
B) 224.0.0.6
C) 224.0.0.7
D) 224.0.0.8
Q22) The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained between adjacent routers.
A) true
B) false
Q23) Place the exchange protocol states in the correct order.
A) _____ two-way 3
B) _____ loading 6
C) _____ down 1
D) _____ full 7
E) _____ exchange 5
F) _____ init 2
G) _____ exstart 4
Q24) DBD packets are involved during which two states? (Choose two.)
A) exstart
B) loading
C) exchange
D) two-way
Q25) At which interval does OSPF refresh LSAs?
A) 10 seconds
B) 30 seconds
C) 30 minutes
D) 1 hour
Q26) Which field is NOT a field within an OSPF packet header?
A) packet length
B) router ID
C) authentication type
D) maxage time
Q27) Which two commands are required for basic OSPF configuration? (Choose two.)
A) network ip-address mask area area-id
B) network ip-address wildcard-mask area area-id
C) router ospf process-id
D) ip router ospf
Q28) Which OSPF show command describes a list of OSPF adjacencies?
A) show ip ospf interface
B) show ip ospf
C) show ip route
D) show ip ospf neighbor
Q29) Which technique is NOT used for router ID selection?
A) highest IP address on an interface
B) IP address on a loopback interface
C) lowest IP address when multiple loopback interfaces are used
D) the router-id command
Q30) When you are using the router-id command, the router ID immediately changes to the IP address that has been entered.
A) true
B) false
Q31) Which network statement is used to configure OSPF on an interface with IP address 172.16.1.1 in area 0?
A) network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
B) network 172.16.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0
C) network 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.255 area 0
D) network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
Q32) Only one OSPF process can run on a Cisco router at one time.
A) true
B) false
Q33) Which mode is the ip ospf process-id area area-id command entered in?
A) (config)#
B) (config-if)#
C) (config-router)#
D) (config-if)# or (config-router)#
Q34) The OSPF router-id command should be used in global configuration mode.
A) true
B) false
Q35) A router has a FastEthernet interface with IP address 172.16.45.1, a loopback 0
interface with IP address 10.3.3.3, a loopback 1 interface with 10.2.2.2, and a router-id
command with IP address 10.1.1.1. Which router ID will be selected?
A) 172.16.45.1
B) 10.3.3.3
C) 10.2.2.2
D) 10.1.1.1
Q36) The show ip ospf neighbor command shows a FULL state on one of the two neighbors
in its table. Which neighbor or neighbors successfully exchange LSDB information?
A) neighbor in FULL state
B) neighbor not in FULL state
C) both have exchanged databases
D) neither has exchanged databases
Q37) Which two show commands can be used to verify the OSPF router ID of a router?
(Choose two.)
A) show ip ospf interface
B) show ip ospf neighbor
C) show ip ospf
D) show ip route
Q38) When you configure a loopback interface, you choose an IP address that is not going to
be advertised by OSPF. This loopback address _____.
A) cannot be a router ID because it cannot be pinged
B) can be the router ID, even though it cannot be pinged
C) can be the router ID and can be pinged if a private address is selected
D) cannot be the router ID; you should always advertise loopback addresses
Q39) Which statement describes the process ID on the router ospf command?
A) All OSPF routers in a network must have the same OSPF process ID.
B) The OSPF process ID is an internal number and does not need to match that on other routers.
C) The OSPF process ID is similar to an AS number.
D) There can be only one OSPF process ID in a router configuration.
Q40) OSPF does not require a Hello protocol on point-to-point links because the adjacent router is directly connected.
A) true
B) false
Q41) Three routers are connected to an Ethernet LAN. One is a small router that should not
take on the role of DR or BDR. How do you ensure that it never will?
A) Set the interface priority to 100.
B) Set the interface priority to 0.
C) Leave the interface priority set to 1 and set the priority of the other two routers to 10.
D) Use the no designated-router command on the Ethernet interface.
Q42) When the DR fails, the BDR builds new adjacencies, exchanges databases, and takes
over as DR automatically.
A) true
B) false
Q43) What is the default hello interval for NBMA interfaces?
A) 10 seconds
B) 30 seconds
C) 120 seconds
D) 60 seconds
Q44) An OSPF router automatically builds adjacencies with neighboring routers on an NBMA link.
A) true
B) false
Q45) Which mode of OSPF operation is RFC-compliant?
A) point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast
B) point-to-multipoint
C) broadcast
D) point-to-point
Q46) Match the OSPF over Frame Relay mode of operation with its description.
A) broadcast
B) point-to-multipoint
C) nonbroadcast
_____ 1. does not discover neighbors automatically c
_____ 2. discovers neighbors automatically and requires DR and BDR election a
_____ 3. used in partial-mesh topologies, does not require DR and BDR election, automatically discovers neighbors b
Q47) Which two OSPF over Frame Relay modes elect a DR? (Choose two.)
A) broadcast
B) nonbroadcast
C) point-to-multipoint
D) point-to-point
Q48) A point-to-point subinterface solves which two problems with OSPF over Frame Relay? (Choose two.)
A) works with multiple vendors
B) manual configuration of neighbors not required
C) DR and BDR not required
D) saves on subnets
Q49) When troubleshooting a DR election problem, which is an excellent command to use?
A) show ip ospf
B) show ip route
C) debug ip ospf neighbor
D) debug ip ospf adj
Q50) Which destination IP address does OSPF use when advertising to all SPF routers?
A) 224.0.0.6
B) 224.0.0.5
C) 255.255.255.255
D) IP address of output interface
Q51) What are the three types of networks defined by OSPF? (Choose three.)
A) point-to-point
B) broadcast
C) point-to-multipoint
D) point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast
E) nonbroadcast multiaccess
Q52) With a hello interval of 10 seconds, what does the dead interval default to?
A) 10 seconds
B) 20 seconds
C) 40 seconds
D) 60 seconds
Q53) The BDR, like the DR, maintains a full set of adjacencies on a broadcast link.
A) true
B) false
Q54) Which two protocols use the OSPF nonbroadcast mode by default?
A) PPP
B) HDLC
C) X.25
D) ATM
E) SLIP
Q55) Which two modes require a DR? (Choose two.)
A) point-to-point
B) broadcast
C) point-to-multipoint
D) nonbroadcast
Q56) Which two statements regarding the OSPF nonbroadcast mode are correct? (Choose
two.)
A) requires manual neighbor commands
B) does not use a DR and BDR
C) uses a DR and BDR
D) requires multiple subnets
Q57) When you are using an OSPF neighbor command, you must configure it under an
interface.
A) true
B) false
Q58) Which OSPF mode requires neighbor commands?
A) broadcast
B) point-to-point
C) point-to-multipoint
D) point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast
Q59) You have a partially meshed hub-and-spoke Frame Relay network. You consider using
the ip ospf network broadcast command on the Frame Relay interface because you do
not want to configure neighbor router statements. Is this a good idea?
A) yes
B) no
Q60) Which three benefits are derived from a multiarea design in OSPF? (Choose three.)
A) reduced LSA flooding
B) reduced SPF calculations
C) reduced size of the neighbor table
D) reduced size of the routing table
Q61) Which router is not an OSPF router type?
A) backbone
B) ABR
C) ASBR
D) core
Q62) List the four link types that a type 1 LSA defines.
A) ___point to point_____________
B) ____transit____________
C) ____stub____________
D) _____virtual___________
Q63) Match each LSA name with the number that corresponds to its LSA type.
A) external
B) network
C) summary
D) multicast
E) router
F) opaque
G) NSSA
_____ 5
_____ 2
_____ 3 and 4
_____ 6
_____ 1
_____ 9–11
_____ 7
Q64) Which of the following is NOT described in the output of the show ip ospf database command?
A) advertising router
B) maximum age counter
C) link count
D) LSA type
E) link type
Q65) If the OSPF routing table shows an O E1 route, what does this mean?
A) It is an interarea route that uses the external cost plus the interarea cost.
B) It is an interarea route that uses the external cost only.
C) It is an external route that uses the external cost only.
D) It is an external route that uses the external cost plus the internal cost.
Q66) Which two LSAs describe intra-area routing information? (Choose two.)
A) summary
B) external 1
C) external 2
D) router
E) network
Q67) Where will a type 3 LSA be sent?
A) only within the area it originates from
B) within the area it originates from plus the backbone area
C) within the area it originates from plus all other areas
D) within the backbone area plus all other areas
Q68) An O E1 route sums up the external metric and the interarea metric, while the O E2
route uses the external metric only. The O E1 route is the default for OSPF; the router
must be configured to support O E2.
A) true
B) false
Q69) A network uses Gigabit Ethernet and you want OSPF to correctly calculate the metric
using bandwidth. Which command should you use to ensure that this happens?
A) ip ospf cost on the interface
B) auto-cost reference-bandwidth under the OSPF routing process
C) bandwidth under the interface
D) bandwidth under the OSPF routing process
Q70) Looking at the routing table, you notice “[110/55].” What does this mean?
A) The O E1 cost is 110, and the O E2 cost is 55.
B) The administrative distance is 110, and the metric is 55.
C) The administrative distance is 55, and the metric is 110.
D) The total cost of the route is 165.
Q71) What does it mean if a route in the routing table has an indicator of O?
A) It is intra-area.
B) It is interarea.
C) It is external.
D) It is stub.
Q72) What is the difference between an LSA 3 and an LSA 4?
A) LSA 3 is a summary LSA, and LSA 4 is E1.
B) LSA 3 is E1, and LSA 4 is a summary.
C) LSA 3 is a summary for networks, and LSA 4 is a summary for ASBRs.
D) LSA 3 is a summary for ASBRs, and LSA 4 is a summary for networks.
Q73) By default, OSPF assigns a cost of 1 to a bandwidth of _____.
A) T1
B) 1 Gbps (gigabits per second)
C) 100 Mbps (megabits per second)
D) 10 Gbps
Q74) The OSPF LSDB shows an LSA with an age of 1799. What does this mean?
A) The LSA is going to age out in 1 second.
B) It has been 1799 minutes since the last update.
C) The LSA will be refreshed in 1 second.
D) The LSA was just refreshed, and another refresh is coming in 29 minutes and
59 seconds.
Q75) Summary LSAs are not automatically summarized.
A) true
B) false
Q76) What are the two reasons why route summarization is important? (Choose two.)
A) reduces LSA type 1 flooding
B) reduces LSA type 3 flooding
C) reduces the size of the routing table
D) reduces the size of the neighbor table
Q77) Which two features play a key role in route summarization? (Choose two.)
A) network numbers in areas should be assigned contiguously
B) network numbers in areas should be assigned discontiguously
C) FLSM
D) VLSM=
Q78) Which command would you use to summarize routes into area 0 from the ABR?
A) summary-address
B) area x range
C) network
D) area x summary
Q79) Which command would you use to summarize routes into OSPF from the ASBR?
A) summary-address
B) area x range
C) network
D) area x summary
Q80) A default route is identified in the OSPF database as an _____.
A) LSA type 1
B) LSA type 2
C) LSA type 3
D) LSA type 4
E) LSA type 5
Q81) The primary purpose of a default route is to reduce the routing table and LSDB size. A
default route avoids detailed updating of routes by inserting a single 0.0.0.0 into the
routing table, making this 0.0.0.0 route act as a gateway of last resort.
A) true
B) false
Q82) When should you use the always keyword with the default-information originate command?
A) on by default; configuration not required
B) when you want to send summarized routes
C) when your default route is always in the routing table
D) when you want the default route advertised, even if it is not in the routing table
Q83) Default routes must always be O E2 routes; there is no other choice.
A) true
B) false
Q84) A summary LSA (type 3 LSA) is designed to automatically summarize a network into blocks.
A) true
B) false
Q85) Route summarization reduces the flooding of which two of the following LSA types?
(Choose two.)
A) router
B) network
C) summary
D) external
E) NSSA
Q86) You are at the ABR of area 1 and want to classfully summarize network 172.16.32.0
through 172.16.63.0 into area 0. Write the configuration command that you would use.
area 1 range 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0
Q87) You are at the ASBR between an OSPF area 0 and an EIGRP network. EIGRP routes
are being redistributed into OSPF. Write the correct summarization command to
summarize the EIGRP block 172.16.32.0 through 172.16.63.0.
summary-address 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0
Q88) It is important to always summarize the routes from area 0 into other areas. Suboptimal
path selection can occur if you do not.
A) true
B) false
Q89) The area range command has an optional not-advertise parameter, which is used to prevent advertising _____.
A) all summary LSAs into area 0
B) summary LSAs that match the area range command
C) all external LSAs
D) external LSAs that match the area range command
Q90) Generally, a default route is described in the routing table as an _____.
A) O route
B) O IA route
C) O *E1 route
D) O *E2 route
Q91) Which command is best to use if you want to establish a default route from a router that has no default route in its routing table?
A) ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 next hop address
B) default-information originate
C) default-information originate always
D) static route
Q92) The area x range and network commands are similar because both use inverse masks for configuration purposes.
A) true
B) false
Q93) A default route is a form of route summarization.
A) true
B) false
Q94) Which is NOT permitted in a stub area?
A) an ABR
B) an ASBR
C) summary routes
D) summary LSAs
Q95) Which type of router advertises the default into a stub area?
A) ASBR
B) backbone router
C) ABR
D) internal router
Q96) What is the correct configuration for stub area 10?
A) area 10 stub-area
B) router ospf 10 stub
C) area 10 stub
D) area 10 stub no-summary
Q97) What is the meaning of the no-summary parameter of the area x stub command?
A) There is no route summarization in the stub area.
B) No summary LSAs are sent into the stub area.
C) No type 5 LSAs are sent into in the stub area.
D) There are no external LSAs in the stub area.
Q98) The default route has a cost of 1 from the stub area ABR if no area default-cost command is used.
A) true
B) false
Q99) Which characteristic relates to NSSA?
A) allows stub area benefits without meeting stub area requirements
B) is a Cisco proprietary technique
C) allows ASBRs but not virtual links
D) floods LSA type 7 into the backbone area
Q100) A disadvantage of NSSA is that it does not have a totally stubby feature like a normal stub area.
A) true
B) false
Q101) Which characteristic is not a prerequisite for stub areas?
A) virtual links not allowed
B) ASBRs not allowed
C) ABRs not allowed
D) one way in and out of the stub area
Q102) Stub area design will not improve _____.
A) CPU utilization on routers in the stub
B) memory requirements on routers in the stub
C) ability to reach outside networks
D) LSDB size on routers in the stub
Q103) An LSA type 7 appears in the routing table as an _____.
A) O E1 route
B) O E2 route
C) O N2 route
D) O I/A route
Q104) What is the difference between stub area and totally stubby area configuration?
A) no-summary option at the ABR
B) area area-id totally-stubby command at the internal routers
C) area area-id nssa command at the internal routers
D) default-cost command at the ABR
Q105) A stub area blocks summary LSAs (type 3 and 4 LSAs).
A) true
B) false
Q106) Where should you configure the area area-id stub command when you are configuring a stub area?
A) on all routers in the area
B) on the ABR
C) on the ASBR
D) on routers that require stub capability within the area=
Q107) Which two features are specific to Cisco? (Choose two.)
A) stub areas
B) totally stubby areas
C) NSSA
D) totally stubby NSSA
Q108) In NSSA, the NSSA ABR translates type 7 LSAs into type 5 LSAs.
A) true
B) false
Q109) The ABR injects a default route into which three types of areas? (Choose three.)
A) stub
B) totally stubby NSSA
C) totally stubby
D) area 0
Q110) Which two types of authentication are used in OSPF? (Choose two.)
A) MD5
B) encrypted password
C) simple password
D) MD6
Q111) When OSPF authentication is configured between two routers, each router has its own
unique password.
A) true
B) false
Q112) Which three of the following are used to generate the message digest when OSPF MD5
authentication is configured?
A) packet
B) sequence number
C) key ID
D) key
E) router ID
Q113) Which command is used to specify that OSPF simple password authentication is to be used?
A) ip ospf authentication simple
B) ip ospf authentication
C) ip ospf authentication-key
D) ip ospf message-digest-key
E) ip ospf authentication message-digest
Q114) Which command is used to specify that OSPF MD5 authentication is to be used?
A) ip ospf authentication simple
B) ip ospf authentication
C) ip ospf authentication-key
D) ip ospf message-digest-key
E) ip ospf authentication message-digest
Q115) When a new MD5 key is configured on a router for OSPF authentication, it will use
both the old and new key until the new key is configured on neighboring routers.
A) true
B) false
Q116) Which command is used to troubleshoot OSPF authentication?
A) debug ip ospf adj
B) debug ip ospf adjacency events
C) debug ip ospf database
D) debug ip ospf packets
117) A router chooses the Router ID based on which of the following?
The Router ID is determined by the highest IP address configured
on a loopback interface. If a router does not have a loopback interface,
then the Router ID is determined by the highest IP address configured
on the router.
118) What are the three areas of OSPF operation? (Choose three.)
B. SPF calculation
C. LSA flooding
D. Neighbor discover and adjacency formation
119) Which of the following is the IOS command to set the cost on an OSP interface?
The IOS command to set the cost of an OSPF interface is ip ospf
cost cost, where cost is a number from 1 to 65,535.
120) In what type of topology do all routers have a virtual connection to all other routers?
A. Full-mesh
121) What does an OSPF neighbor status of down mean?
D. No Hello packets have been received on the interface.
122) What does the OSPF neighbor status init mean?
The init state is simply the state of receiving Hello packets on thevinterface; no adjacencies or other information have been exchanged at this point.
123) What does the OSPF neighbor status 2Way mean?
Hello packets contain Router ID information. Once a router sees its own Router ID, it is in a 2Way state.
124) What does the OSPF neighbor status ExStart mean?
ExStart is the step prior to exchanging all route information. LSA floods occur for routing updates after adjacencies have been formed.
125)What does the OSPF neighbor status Loading mean?
This process follows the Exchange state and verifies that no new LSA information became available during the exchange process.
126) What does the OSPF neighbor status Exchange mean?
Although there are continuous route exchanges, the Exchange state occurs at the time adjacencies are established.
127) What does the OSPF neighbor status Full indicate?
When a neighbor reaches Full status, it has synchronized its database with all of the adjacent routers.
128) Which of the following network types have a DR and a BDR assigned?
A. Broadcast
C. NBMA broadcast
129) Which routers form adjacencies with routers designated as DROther
on a broadcast multi-access network? (Choose all that apply.)
B. BDR
C. DR
130) Which IP multicast address corresponds with AllSPFRouters?
B. 224.0.0.5
131) Which of the following OSPF terms refers to a connected (or adjacent) router that is running an OSPF process, with the adjacent interface assigned to the same area?
B. Neighbor
132) What is the valid range for the cost metric for OSPF interfaces?
A. 1–255
133) Which method does Cisco use to calculate the cost of a link?
A. 1 x 108 / bandwidth
134) What OSPF term refers to a network or router interface assigned to
any given interface?
A. Link
135) All OSPF networks must contain which of the following?
B. Area 0
136) Which of the following are advantages of OSPF over RIP? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Speed of convergence
C. Support for VLSMs
D. Scalability
A) routing
B) topology
C) update
D) neighbor
Q2) The memory needed to maintain tables is one disadvantage of link-state protocols.
A) true
B) false
Q3) Match each table to its function.
A) routing
B) topology
C) neighbor
topology_____ 1. stores LSAs
neighbor_____ 2. stores adjacencies
routing_____ 3. stores best paths
Q4) Which term refers to the router that connects area 0 to a non backbone area?
A) area boundary router
B) area border router
C) autonomous system boundary router
D) backbone router
Q5) What is the recommended guideline for the maximum number of routers per OSPF area?
A) 50
B) 10
C) 200
D) 500
Q6) Which OSPF packet helps form the neighbor adjacency?
A) exchange packet
B) hello packet
C) neighbor discovery packet
D) adjacency packet
Q7) Which criterion does SPF use to determine the best path?
A) lowest delay
B) highest bandwidth
C) lowest total cost of the route
D) total bandwidth of the route
Q8) Which table is populated as a result of the SPF calculations?
A) topology
B) routing
C) adjacency
D) neighbor
Q9) Cisco recommends no more than _____ area or areas per ABR in addition to area 0.
A) one
B) two
C) four
D) eight
Q10) An area border router maintains _____.
A) a separate database for each area with which it is connected
B) a single database for all areas
C) two databases: one for the backbone and one for all others
D) a separate routing table for each area
Q11) In a multiarea network, any area can be the backbone area, although this is most often area 0.
A) true
B) false
Q12) When an LSA is received by an OSPF router, it is installed in the _____.
A) neighbor table
B) topology table
C) routing table
Q13) An OSPF router receives an LSA, the router checks its sequence number, and this
number matches the sequence number of the LSA that the receiving router already has.
What does the receiving router do with the LSA?
A) ignores the LSA
B) adds it to the database
C) sends newer LSU update to source router
D) floods the LSA to the other routers
Q14) An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that
this number is higher than the sequence number it already has. Which two tasks does
the router perform with the LSA?
A) ignores the LSA
B) adds it to the database
C) sends newer LSU update to source router
D) floods the LSA to the other routers
Q15) An OSPF router receives an LSA. The router checks its sequence number and finds that
this number is lower than the sequence number it already has. What does the router do
with the LSA?
A) ignores the LSA
B) adds it to the database
C) sends newer LSU update to source router
D) floods the LSA to the other routers
Q16) Each LSA has its own age timer. By default, how long does an LSA wait before requiring an update?
A) 30 seconds
B) 1 minute
C) 30 minutes
D) 1 hour
Q17) Distance vector protocols use the concept of split horizon, but link-state routing protocols, such as OSPF, do not.
A) true
B) false
Q18) The outcome of Dijkstra’s calculation is used to populate the _____.
A) topology table
B) routing table
C) neighbor table
D) adjacency table
Q19) What is the IP protocol number for OSPF packets?
A) 89
B) 86
C) 20
D) 76
Q20) Which packet is NOT an OSPF packet type?
A) LSU
B) LSR
C) DBD
D) LSAck
E) hello
F) query
Q21) Which multicast address does the OSPF Hello protocol use?
A) 224.0.0.5
B) 224.0.0.6
C) 224.0.0.7
D) 224.0.0.8
Q22) The Hello protocol sends periodic updates to ensure that a neighbor relationship is maintained between adjacent routers.
A) true
B) false
Q23) Place the exchange protocol states in the correct order.
A) _____ two-way 3
B) _____ loading 6
C) _____ down 1
D) _____ full 7
E) _____ exchange 5
F) _____ init 2
G) _____ exstart 4
Q24) DBD packets are involved during which two states? (Choose two.)
A) exstart
B) loading
C) exchange
D) two-way
Q25) At which interval does OSPF refresh LSAs?
A) 10 seconds
B) 30 seconds
C) 30 minutes
D) 1 hour
Q26) Which field is NOT a field within an OSPF packet header?
A) packet length
B) router ID
C) authentication type
D) maxage time
Q27) Which two commands are required for basic OSPF configuration? (Choose two.)
A) network ip-address mask area area-id
B) network ip-address wildcard-mask area area-id
C) router ospf process-id
D) ip router ospf
Q28) Which OSPF show command describes a list of OSPF adjacencies?
A) show ip ospf interface
B) show ip ospf
C) show ip route
D) show ip ospf neighbor
Q29) Which technique is NOT used for router ID selection?
A) highest IP address on an interface
B) IP address on a loopback interface
C) lowest IP address when multiple loopback interfaces are used
D) the router-id command
Q30) When you are using the router-id command, the router ID immediately changes to the IP address that has been entered.
A) true
B) false
Q31) Which network statement is used to configure OSPF on an interface with IP address 172.16.1.1 in area 0?
A) network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
B) network 172.16.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0
C) network 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.255 area 0
D) network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
Q32) Only one OSPF process can run on a Cisco router at one time.
A) true
B) false
Q33) Which mode is the ip ospf process-id area area-id command entered in?
A) (config)#
B) (config-if)#
C) (config-router)#
D) (config-if)# or (config-router)#
Q34) The OSPF router-id command should be used in global configuration mode.
A) true
B) false
Q35) A router has a FastEthernet interface with IP address 172.16.45.1, a loopback 0
interface with IP address 10.3.3.3, a loopback 1 interface with 10.2.2.2, and a router-id
command with IP address 10.1.1.1. Which router ID will be selected?
A) 172.16.45.1
B) 10.3.3.3
C) 10.2.2.2
D) 10.1.1.1
Q36) The show ip ospf neighbor command shows a FULL state on one of the two neighbors
in its table. Which neighbor or neighbors successfully exchange LSDB information?
A) neighbor in FULL state
B) neighbor not in FULL state
C) both have exchanged databases
D) neither has exchanged databases
Q37) Which two show commands can be used to verify the OSPF router ID of a router?
(Choose two.)
A) show ip ospf interface
B) show ip ospf neighbor
C) show ip ospf
D) show ip route
Q38) When you configure a loopback interface, you choose an IP address that is not going to
be advertised by OSPF. This loopback address _____.
A) cannot be a router ID because it cannot be pinged
B) can be the router ID, even though it cannot be pinged
C) can be the router ID and can be pinged if a private address is selected
D) cannot be the router ID; you should always advertise loopback addresses
Q39) Which statement describes the process ID on the router ospf command?
A) All OSPF routers in a network must have the same OSPF process ID.
B) The OSPF process ID is an internal number and does not need to match that on other routers.
C) The OSPF process ID is similar to an AS number.
D) There can be only one OSPF process ID in a router configuration.
Q40) OSPF does not require a Hello protocol on point-to-point links because the adjacent router is directly connected.
A) true
B) false
Q41) Three routers are connected to an Ethernet LAN. One is a small router that should not
take on the role of DR or BDR. How do you ensure that it never will?
A) Set the interface priority to 100.
B) Set the interface priority to 0.
C) Leave the interface priority set to 1 and set the priority of the other two routers to 10.
D) Use the no designated-router command on the Ethernet interface.
Q42) When the DR fails, the BDR builds new adjacencies, exchanges databases, and takes
over as DR automatically.
A) true
B) false
Q43) What is the default hello interval for NBMA interfaces?
A) 10 seconds
B) 30 seconds
C) 120 seconds
D) 60 seconds
Q44) An OSPF router automatically builds adjacencies with neighboring routers on an NBMA link.
A) true
B) false
Q45) Which mode of OSPF operation is RFC-compliant?
A) point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast
B) point-to-multipoint
C) broadcast
D) point-to-point
Q46) Match the OSPF over Frame Relay mode of operation with its description.
A) broadcast
B) point-to-multipoint
C) nonbroadcast
_____ 1. does not discover neighbors automatically c
_____ 2. discovers neighbors automatically and requires DR and BDR election a
_____ 3. used in partial-mesh topologies, does not require DR and BDR election, automatically discovers neighbors b
Q47) Which two OSPF over Frame Relay modes elect a DR? (Choose two.)
A) broadcast
B) nonbroadcast
C) point-to-multipoint
D) point-to-point
Q48) A point-to-point subinterface solves which two problems with OSPF over Frame Relay? (Choose two.)
A) works with multiple vendors
B) manual configuration of neighbors not required
C) DR and BDR not required
D) saves on subnets
Q49) When troubleshooting a DR election problem, which is an excellent command to use?
A) show ip ospf
B) show ip route
C) debug ip ospf neighbor
D) debug ip ospf adj
Q50) Which destination IP address does OSPF use when advertising to all SPF routers?
A) 224.0.0.6
B) 224.0.0.5
C) 255.255.255.255
D) IP address of output interface
Q51) What are the three types of networks defined by OSPF? (Choose three.)
A) point-to-point
B) broadcast
C) point-to-multipoint
D) point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast
E) nonbroadcast multiaccess
Q52) With a hello interval of 10 seconds, what does the dead interval default to?
A) 10 seconds
B) 20 seconds
C) 40 seconds
D) 60 seconds
Q53) The BDR, like the DR, maintains a full set of adjacencies on a broadcast link.
A) true
B) false
Q54) Which two protocols use the OSPF nonbroadcast mode by default?
A) PPP
B) HDLC
C) X.25
D) ATM
E) SLIP
Q55) Which two modes require a DR? (Choose two.)
A) point-to-point
B) broadcast
C) point-to-multipoint
D) nonbroadcast
Q56) Which two statements regarding the OSPF nonbroadcast mode are correct? (Choose
two.)
A) requires manual neighbor commands
B) does not use a DR and BDR
C) uses a DR and BDR
D) requires multiple subnets
Q57) When you are using an OSPF neighbor command, you must configure it under an
interface.
A) true
B) false
Q58) Which OSPF mode requires neighbor commands?
A) broadcast
B) point-to-point
C) point-to-multipoint
D) point-to-multipoint nonbroadcast
Q59) You have a partially meshed hub-and-spoke Frame Relay network. You consider using
the ip ospf network broadcast command on the Frame Relay interface because you do
not want to configure neighbor router statements. Is this a good idea?
A) yes
B) no
Q60) Which three benefits are derived from a multiarea design in OSPF? (Choose three.)
A) reduced LSA flooding
B) reduced SPF calculations
C) reduced size of the neighbor table
D) reduced size of the routing table
Q61) Which router is not an OSPF router type?
A) backbone
B) ABR
C) ASBR
D) core
Q62) List the four link types that a type 1 LSA defines.
A) ___point to point_____________
B) ____transit____________
C) ____stub____________
D) _____virtual___________
Q63) Match each LSA name with the number that corresponds to its LSA type.
A) external
B) network
C) summary
D) multicast
E) router
F) opaque
G) NSSA
_____ 5
_____ 2
_____ 3 and 4
_____ 6
_____ 1
_____ 9–11
_____ 7
Q64) Which of the following is NOT described in the output of the show ip ospf database command?
A) advertising router
B) maximum age counter
C) link count
D) LSA type
E) link type
Q65) If the OSPF routing table shows an O E1 route, what does this mean?
A) It is an interarea route that uses the external cost plus the interarea cost.
B) It is an interarea route that uses the external cost only.
C) It is an external route that uses the external cost only.
D) It is an external route that uses the external cost plus the internal cost.
Q66) Which two LSAs describe intra-area routing information? (Choose two.)
A) summary
B) external 1
C) external 2
D) router
E) network
Q67) Where will a type 3 LSA be sent?
A) only within the area it originates from
B) within the area it originates from plus the backbone area
C) within the area it originates from plus all other areas
D) within the backbone area plus all other areas
Q68) An O E1 route sums up the external metric and the interarea metric, while the O E2
route uses the external metric only. The O E1 route is the default for OSPF; the router
must be configured to support O E2.
A) true
B) false
Q69) A network uses Gigabit Ethernet and you want OSPF to correctly calculate the metric
using bandwidth. Which command should you use to ensure that this happens?
A) ip ospf cost on the interface
B) auto-cost reference-bandwidth under the OSPF routing process
C) bandwidth under the interface
D) bandwidth under the OSPF routing process
Q70) Looking at the routing table, you notice “[110/55].” What does this mean?
A) The O E1 cost is 110, and the O E2 cost is 55.
B) The administrative distance is 110, and the metric is 55.
C) The administrative distance is 55, and the metric is 110.
D) The total cost of the route is 165.
Q71) What does it mean if a route in the routing table has an indicator of O?
A) It is intra-area.
B) It is interarea.
C) It is external.
D) It is stub.
Q72) What is the difference between an LSA 3 and an LSA 4?
A) LSA 3 is a summary LSA, and LSA 4 is E1.
B) LSA 3 is E1, and LSA 4 is a summary.
C) LSA 3 is a summary for networks, and LSA 4 is a summary for ASBRs.
D) LSA 3 is a summary for ASBRs, and LSA 4 is a summary for networks.
Q73) By default, OSPF assigns a cost of 1 to a bandwidth of _____.
A) T1
B) 1 Gbps (gigabits per second)
C) 100 Mbps (megabits per second)
D) 10 Gbps
Q74) The OSPF LSDB shows an LSA with an age of 1799. What does this mean?
A) The LSA is going to age out in 1 second.
B) It has been 1799 minutes since the last update.
C) The LSA will be refreshed in 1 second.
D) The LSA was just refreshed, and another refresh is coming in 29 minutes and
59 seconds.
Q75) Summary LSAs are not automatically summarized.
A) true
B) false
Q76) What are the two reasons why route summarization is important? (Choose two.)
A) reduces LSA type 1 flooding
B) reduces LSA type 3 flooding
C) reduces the size of the routing table
D) reduces the size of the neighbor table
Q77) Which two features play a key role in route summarization? (Choose two.)
A) network numbers in areas should be assigned contiguously
B) network numbers in areas should be assigned discontiguously
C) FLSM
D) VLSM=
Q78) Which command would you use to summarize routes into area 0 from the ABR?
A) summary-address
B) area x range
C) network
D) area x summary
Q79) Which command would you use to summarize routes into OSPF from the ASBR?
A) summary-address
B) area x range
C) network
D) area x summary
Q80) A default route is identified in the OSPF database as an _____.
A) LSA type 1
B) LSA type 2
C) LSA type 3
D) LSA type 4
E) LSA type 5
Q81) The primary purpose of a default route is to reduce the routing table and LSDB size. A
default route avoids detailed updating of routes by inserting a single 0.0.0.0 into the
routing table, making this 0.0.0.0 route act as a gateway of last resort.
A) true
B) false
Q82) When should you use the always keyword with the default-information originate command?
A) on by default; configuration not required
B) when you want to send summarized routes
C) when your default route is always in the routing table
D) when you want the default route advertised, even if it is not in the routing table
Q83) Default routes must always be O E2 routes; there is no other choice.
A) true
B) false
Q84) A summary LSA (type 3 LSA) is designed to automatically summarize a network into blocks.
A) true
B) false
Q85) Route summarization reduces the flooding of which two of the following LSA types?
(Choose two.)
A) router
B) network
C) summary
D) external
E) NSSA
Q86) You are at the ABR of area 1 and want to classfully summarize network 172.16.32.0
through 172.16.63.0 into area 0. Write the configuration command that you would use.
area 1 range 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0
Q87) You are at the ASBR between an OSPF area 0 and an EIGRP network. EIGRP routes
are being redistributed into OSPF. Write the correct summarization command to
summarize the EIGRP block 172.16.32.0 through 172.16.63.0.
summary-address 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0
Q88) It is important to always summarize the routes from area 0 into other areas. Suboptimal
path selection can occur if you do not.
A) true
B) false
Q89) The area range command has an optional not-advertise parameter, which is used to prevent advertising _____.
A) all summary LSAs into area 0
B) summary LSAs that match the area range command
C) all external LSAs
D) external LSAs that match the area range command
Q90) Generally, a default route is described in the routing table as an _____.
A) O route
B) O IA route
C) O *E1 route
D) O *E2 route
Q91) Which command is best to use if you want to establish a default route from a router that has no default route in its routing table?
A) ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 next hop address
B) default-information originate
C) default-information originate always
D) static route
Q92) The area x range and network commands are similar because both use inverse masks for configuration purposes.
A) true
B) false
Q93) A default route is a form of route summarization.
A) true
B) false
Q94) Which is NOT permitted in a stub area?
A) an ABR
B) an ASBR
C) summary routes
D) summary LSAs
Q95) Which type of router advertises the default into a stub area?
A) ASBR
B) backbone router
C) ABR
D) internal router
Q96) What is the correct configuration for stub area 10?
A) area 10 stub-area
B) router ospf 10 stub
C) area 10 stub
D) area 10 stub no-summary
Q97) What is the meaning of the no-summary parameter of the area x stub command?
A) There is no route summarization in the stub area.
B) No summary LSAs are sent into the stub area.
C) No type 5 LSAs are sent into in the stub area.
D) There are no external LSAs in the stub area.
Q98) The default route has a cost of 1 from the stub area ABR if no area default-cost command is used.
A) true
B) false
Q99) Which characteristic relates to NSSA?
A) allows stub area benefits without meeting stub area requirements
B) is a Cisco proprietary technique
C) allows ASBRs but not virtual links
D) floods LSA type 7 into the backbone area
Q100) A disadvantage of NSSA is that it does not have a totally stubby feature like a normal stub area.
A) true
B) false
Q101) Which characteristic is not a prerequisite for stub areas?
A) virtual links not allowed
B) ASBRs not allowed
C) ABRs not allowed
D) one way in and out of the stub area
Q102) Stub area design will not improve _____.
A) CPU utilization on routers in the stub
B) memory requirements on routers in the stub
C) ability to reach outside networks
D) LSDB size on routers in the stub
Q103) An LSA type 7 appears in the routing table as an _____.
A) O E1 route
B) O E2 route
C) O N2 route
D) O I/A route
Q104) What is the difference between stub area and totally stubby area configuration?
A) no-summary option at the ABR
B) area area-id totally-stubby command at the internal routers
C) area area-id nssa command at the internal routers
D) default-cost command at the ABR
Q105) A stub area blocks summary LSAs (type 3 and 4 LSAs).
A) true
B) false
Q106) Where should you configure the area area-id stub command when you are configuring a stub area?
A) on all routers in the area
B) on the ABR
C) on the ASBR
D) on routers that require stub capability within the area=
Q107) Which two features are specific to Cisco? (Choose two.)
A) stub areas
B) totally stubby areas
C) NSSA
D) totally stubby NSSA
Q108) In NSSA, the NSSA ABR translates type 7 LSAs into type 5 LSAs.
A) true
B) false
Q109) The ABR injects a default route into which three types of areas? (Choose three.)
A) stub
B) totally stubby NSSA
C) totally stubby
D) area 0
Q110) Which two types of authentication are used in OSPF? (Choose two.)
A) MD5
B) encrypted password
C) simple password
D) MD6
Q111) When OSPF authentication is configured between two routers, each router has its own
unique password.
A) true
B) false
Q112) Which three of the following are used to generate the message digest when OSPF MD5
authentication is configured?
A) packet
B) sequence number
C) key ID
D) key
E) router ID
Q113) Which command is used to specify that OSPF simple password authentication is to be used?
A) ip ospf authentication simple
B) ip ospf authentication
C) ip ospf authentication-key
D) ip ospf message-digest-key
E) ip ospf authentication message-digest
Q114) Which command is used to specify that OSPF MD5 authentication is to be used?
A) ip ospf authentication simple
B) ip ospf authentication
C) ip ospf authentication-key
D) ip ospf message-digest-key
E) ip ospf authentication message-digest
Q115) When a new MD5 key is configured on a router for OSPF authentication, it will use
both the old and new key until the new key is configured on neighboring routers.
A) true
B) false
Q116) Which command is used to troubleshoot OSPF authentication?
A) debug ip ospf adj
B) debug ip ospf adjacency events
C) debug ip ospf database
D) debug ip ospf packets
117) A router chooses the Router ID based on which of the following?
The Router ID is determined by the highest IP address configured
on a loopback interface. If a router does not have a loopback interface,
then the Router ID is determined by the highest IP address configured
on the router.
118) What are the three areas of OSPF operation? (Choose three.)
B. SPF calculation
C. LSA flooding
D. Neighbor discover and adjacency formation
119) Which of the following is the IOS command to set the cost on an OSP interface?
The IOS command to set the cost of an OSPF interface is ip ospf
cost cost, where cost is a number from 1 to 65,535.
120) In what type of topology do all routers have a virtual connection to all other routers?
A. Full-mesh
121) What does an OSPF neighbor status of down mean?
D. No Hello packets have been received on the interface.
122) What does the OSPF neighbor status init mean?
The init state is simply the state of receiving Hello packets on thevinterface; no adjacencies or other information have been exchanged at this point.
123) What does the OSPF neighbor status 2Way mean?
Hello packets contain Router ID information. Once a router sees its own Router ID, it is in a 2Way state.
124) What does the OSPF neighbor status ExStart mean?
ExStart is the step prior to exchanging all route information. LSA floods occur for routing updates after adjacencies have been formed.
125)What does the OSPF neighbor status Loading mean?
This process follows the Exchange state and verifies that no new LSA information became available during the exchange process.
126) What does the OSPF neighbor status Exchange mean?
Although there are continuous route exchanges, the Exchange state occurs at the time adjacencies are established.
127) What does the OSPF neighbor status Full indicate?
When a neighbor reaches Full status, it has synchronized its database with all of the adjacent routers.
128) Which of the following network types have a DR and a BDR assigned?
A. Broadcast
C. NBMA broadcast
129) Which routers form adjacencies with routers designated as DROther
on a broadcast multi-access network? (Choose all that apply.)
B. BDR
C. DR
130) Which IP multicast address corresponds with AllSPFRouters?
B. 224.0.0.5
131) Which of the following OSPF terms refers to a connected (or adjacent) router that is running an OSPF process, with the adjacent interface assigned to the same area?
B. Neighbor
132) What is the valid range for the cost metric for OSPF interfaces?
A. 1–255
133) Which method does Cisco use to calculate the cost of a link?
A. 1 x 108 / bandwidth
134) What OSPF term refers to a network or router interface assigned to
any given interface?
A. Link
135) All OSPF networks must contain which of the following?
B. Area 0
136) Which of the following are advantages of OSPF over RIP? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Speed of convergence
C. Support for VLSMs
D. Scalability
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